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Ferien's avatar

You say there are few selective sweeps, but what do you compare with? Did humans have less selective sweeps that chimps or average mammal species at same time, or did humans at 55 kya had less selective sweeps than humans at 8 kya?

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Jan Edric's avatar

Thank you for this interesting post.

I don't know anything about statistical genetics so I probably misunderstood something, but I found this paper https://www.pnas.org/doi/pdf/10.1073/pnas.2213061120 also coauthored by Tobler and Souilmi (and others). In Table 1 (page 5), the authors indicate that one-third of the "genes inferred as under positive selection" are associated with neuronal functions. On page 4, the authors write: "Intriguingly, eight of the ten ancient Eurasian neuronal genes are associated with severe intellectual disabilities and developmental delay phenotypes in humans".

Also, in this preprint https://www.biorxiv.org/content/10.1101/2023.02.05.525539v2.full, the authors identified a "young peak of genetic variants arising at ~280,000 until ~2,000 years ago reaching a maximum at ~55,000 years ago". Then, they write that "genetic variants related to ‘Psychiatric’ phenotypes presented an evolutionary age younger than expected by chance (median evolutionary age = 412,639 years old), a class of traits suggested to be linked to human brain evolution."

How is this consistent with your claim that "Most studies agree that instances of locus-specific selection typically influence phenotypes related to immunity, pigment, and diet with little to no instances for cognitive/behavioral phenotypes"? Are these two studies wrong? Or did I just misunderstood everything?

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